Anesthesia Quiz 2

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A neuroleptanalgesic is a combination of what?

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1

A neuroleptanalgesic is a combination of what?

An opioid and a tranquilizer

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2

Do most preanesthesics cross the placental barrier?

yes

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3

Is it recommended to give atropine to an animal that has tachycardia?

no

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4

Anticholinergic drugs such as atropine block the release of acetylcholine at the:

Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system

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5

T or F: High doses of opioids can cause bradycardia and respiratory depression.

true

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6

Severe bradycardia caused by dexmedetomidine is best treated with

atipamezole

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7

Opioids may be reversed with:

Naloxone

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8

Which one of the following drugs will precipitate out when mixed with other drugs or solutions?

diazepam

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9

Etomidate is particularly well suited for induction of dogs with which of the following conditions?

severe cardiac disease

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10

Which of the following is an example of a dissociative anesthetic?

Ketamine hydrochloride

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11

True or False: One of the disadvantages of the drug etomidate is that animals that are anesthetized with it may demonstrate excitement during recovery.

true

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12

Compared with methoxyflurane, isoflurane is considered to have a:

higher vapor pressure

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13

An anesthetic agent that has a low blood-gas partition coefficient will result in __________ induction and recovery time.

fast

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14

Which of the following has the lowest blood-gas partition coefficient?

sevoflourine

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15

As a rough guideline, to maintain surgical anesthesia safely, the vaporizer should be set at about:

1.5Ă—MAC

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16

Propofol sometimes causes transient apnea. To avoid this, the anesthetist should:

titrate this drug in several boluses

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17

One problem frequently associated with recovery from tiletamine-zolazepam in dogs is:

excitement

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18

The concentration of propofol entering the brain is affected by a variety of factors such as:

Perfusion of the brain lipid solubility of the drug, plasma protein levels, and the rate at which it is given

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19

Effects that are commonly seen after administration of a dissociative include:

Increased blood pressure, increased heart rate, increased CSF pressured, and increased intraocular pressure

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20

Adverse effects common with isoflurane include:

depression of respiration

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21

MAC will vary with:

Body temperature of the patient, age of the patient, concurrent use of other drugs, and anesthetic agent

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22

Factors that may affect the speed of anesthetic induction with a volatile gaseous anesthetic include:

Partition coefficient of the agent and vaporizer setting

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23

Which of the following are alpha2-agonists? a. Atipamezole b. Xylazine c. Acepromazine d. Dexmedetomidine

xylazine and dexmedetomidine

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24

Effects that atropine may have on the body include:

decreased salivation, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and mydriasis

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25

Characteristic effects of the benzodiazepines include:

muscle relaxation and minimal effect on the cardiovascular system

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26

Idiopathic pain is defined as:

Pain that is of unknown cause

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27

Pathologic pain is defined as:

Pain that is prolonged and exaggerated

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28

An ovariohysterectomy, which involves surgically incis- ing the skin and abdominal wall and excising the uterus and ovaries, has what components of pain:

somatic and visceral

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29

The process by which thermal, mechanical, or chemical noxious stimuli are converted into electrical signals called action potentials is:

transduction

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30

In the spinal cord, pain impulses can be altered by neurons that either suppress or amplify nerve impulses. This process is known as:

modulation

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31

Where in the pain pathway does secondary sensitization or "windup" occur?

spinal cord

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32

Which of the following statements regarding multimodal analgesic therapy is true?

The dose of each drug is decreased when several drugs are used.

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33

Whichofthefollowingdrugcombinationsisanexample of multimodal analgesic therapy?

Dexmedetomidine, morphine, and ketamine

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34

Which one of the following analgesic plans targets three different pain receptor mechanisms?

Morphine IM, ketamine CRI, and lidocaine nerve block

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35

Does treating pain improve wound healing?

yes

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36

Administering analgesics before tissue injury is known as:

Preemptive analgesia

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37

What is the mechanism of action of nonsteroidal antiin- flammatory drugs?

They inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

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38

Which of the following is not a potential side effect of NSAID administration?

respiratory depression

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39

True or False: A pain scale can be used to assess pain as well as response to analgesic therapy.

true

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40

In the healthy awake animal, the main stimulus to breathe is the result of:

Excess carbon dioxide concentration in the blood

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41

In the healthy awake animal, exhalation lasts at least __ times as long as inhalation.

2

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42

The normal VT in an awake animal is __ mL/kg.

10-15

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43

In the anesthetized animal that is breathing room air, the anesthetist may expect to see:

An increase in the Paco2 and a decrease in the Pao2

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44

When used in a line block, a local anesthetic agent will have a direct effect on the:

Peripheral nervous system

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45

Local anesthetics block transmission of nerve impulses from:

Sensory, motor, and autonomic neurons

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46

Local anesthetic agents work because:

They interfere with the movement of sodium ions

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47

When a local anesthetic is injected around a single major nerve, the procedure is referred to as a(n):

Infiltration nerve block

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48

True or False: Epinephrine may be mixed with a local anesthetic agent to prolong the effects of the drug.

true

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49

When performing an epidural, one must be aware that the spinal cord in a cat may extend as far caudally as:

S1

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50

The maximum subcutaneous dose of lidocaine for a dog is ___ mg/kg.

10

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51

When performing intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier block), one should use lidocaine:

without epinephrine

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52

The term atelectasis refers to:

collapse of the alveoli

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53

What is the most common acid-base abnormality in anesthetized patients?

respiratory acidosis

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54

When intermittent mandatory manual ventilation is ap- plied to a patient that is connected to a circle system with a precision vaporizer, it is customary to:

decrease the vaporizer setting

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55

Which of the following can be used to monitor anesthetic depth in a patient that has been given a neuromuscular blocking agent?

heart rate

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56

True or false: A neuromuscular blocking agent will not only paralyze skeletal muscle, but also provide some analgesia.

false

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57

When an animal is given a __ neuromuscular blocking drug, an initial surge of muscle activity may be seen be- fore there is paralysis of the muscles.

depolarizing

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58

The muscle type that is most affected by neuromuscular blocking agents is:

skeletal muscle

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59

True or False: both depolarizing and nondepolarizing drugs can be reversed.

false

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60

Problems that may result from excessive controlled ven- tilation may include:

A decreased cardiac output, a state of respiratory alkalosis, and ruptured alveoli

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61

Local anesthetic agents such as lidocaine or propara- caine work well when applied:

Topically on mucous membranes, topically on the cornea, and through injection

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62

Factors that may interfere with the action of local anesthetic agents include:

fat, scar tissue, and hemorrhage

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63

Clinical signs of systemic toxicity from a local anesthetic agent may include:

Sedation, convulsions, muscle twitching, and respiratory depression

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64

The effects that could result from an epidural anesthetic if the drug reached the thoracic and cervical spinal cord include:

Sympathetic blockade, paralysis of intercostal muscles, and paralysis of the diaphragm

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